FCOM VOL 2 (Type Rating)

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What do PLT and CPLT identify in the A220 FCOM?
Lernen beginnen
Physical crew positions: PLT is the left pilot position and CPLT is the right pilot position.
What are OEB Immediate Actions?
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Actions identified in an Operations Engineering Bulletin that must be memorized and immediately applied without referring to the OEB.
When do MMEL requirements cease to apply?
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After the thrust levers are advanced at the start of takeoff.
When may a tripped circuit breaker normally be reset or cycled in flight?
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Only when an explicit FCOM or QRH procedure specifies that action.
Up to what altitude is the basic A220 approved for flight in icing conditions?
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Up to 35,000 ft.
What is the basic maximum landing approach-path angle in Chapter 2?
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3.5 degrees
Can structural MTOW or MLW be further restricted?
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Yes. Performance considerations may impose a lower permitted weight.
What effect does landing-gear retraction have on the A220 CG position?
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The effect is negligible.
What is the A220 VMO at and below 8,000 ft?
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300 KIAS.
What is the A220 high-altitude maximum operating Mach number?
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Mach 0.82.
What are the A220 VFE values for FLAP 1 through FLAP 5?
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FLAP 1: 230 KIAS; FLAP 2: 210 KIAS; FLAP 3: 210 KIAS; FLAP 4: 190 KIAS; FLAP 5: 170 KIAS.
What is the maximum landing-gear extension speed on the A220?
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250 KIAS.
What is the maximum landing-gear retraction speed on the A220?
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220 KIAS.
What is the maximum speed with the landing gear extended?
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250 KIAS.
What is the recommended turbulence penetration speed on the A220?
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265 KIAS at or below 10,000 ft, or 280 KIAS above 10,000 ft, or Mach 0.75, whichever is lower.
What is the maximum windshield-wiper operating speed?
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250 KIAS.
What is the A220 tire limit speed?
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195 knots ground speed.
Does operating below VA make rapid alternating control inputs structurally safe?
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No. Rapid and large alternating control inputs may cause structural failure at any speed, including below VA.
What restriction applies to full control inputs in Direct Mode?
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Full elevator, rudder and aileron inputs and maneuvers near stall angle of attack must be confined to speeds below VA.
What is the A220 maximum operating altitude?
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41,000 ft.
What are the maximum and minimum ambient temperatures approved for A220 takeoff and landing?
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Maximum +52.5°C and minimum -54°C.
What are the A220 maneuvering limit load factors with flaps up and flaps down?
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Flaps up: -1.0 g to +2.5 g; flaps down: 0.0 g to +2.0 g.
At what OAT does the A220 FCOM define cold-weather operations?
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At an OAT of 0°C or below.
Is takeoff permitted with frost, ice, snow, or slush adhering to an A220 critical surface?
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No.
When is engine operation prohibited in ground fog?
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When OAT is below -18°C.
When is takeoff prohibited in ground freezing fog?
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When ground freezing fog exists and visibility is less than 150 m (500 ft).
Is infrared deicing approved on the A220?
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No. Infrared deicing is prohibited.
What is the ground temperature threshold for required cowl anti-ice use?
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OAT 10°C or below when the specified moisture or surface-contamination conditions exist.
How are in-flight icing conditions defined for A220 anti-ice limitations?
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TAT 10°C or below with visible moisture, except when SAT is -40°C or below.
What is the takeoff temperature threshold for required wing anti-ice use?
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OAT 5°C or below with the specified visible-moisture or runway-contamination conditions.
What are the key A220 wing anti-ice limitations in flight?
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Do not hold in icing with flaps/slats extended; wing anti-ice must be OFF above 35,000 ft and must not be ON above TAT 15°C.
What action is required when A220 SLD icing is identified?
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Select wing and cowl anti-ice ON and leave the icing conditions; continued operation in SLD icing is prohibited.
When is A220 ground engine ice shedding required?
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At OAT 3°C or below with visible moisture.
What is the A220 ground engine ice-shedding schedule?
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Momentarily increase to at least 60% N1 at intervals not exceeding 30 minutes, with the final ice shedding within 5 minutes before takeoff.
What speed correction is required for a FLAP 5 approach and landing in icing conditions?
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Increase VREF, VAC, and VGA by 5 KIAS.
What is the maximum approved runway slope for A220 takeoff and landing?
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±2%.
What is the basic maximum A220 tailwind component for takeoff and landing?
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15 kt.
What source must be used for the A220 Smoke/Fire/Fumes procedure?
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The QRH.
What are the maximum wind limits for passenger and cargo door operation?
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40 kt for opening or closing and 65 kt with the door held open.
What are the A220 pressurization differential-pressure limits?
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Maximum positive 8.8 psid, maximum negative -0.5 psid, and no more than 1.0 psid at initial touchdown.
What are the A220 autopilot minimum engagement and minimum use heights in the applicable configuration?
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Minimum engagement 400 ft AGL; minimum use 80 ft AGL.
What is the minimum APU oil temperature for starting?
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-40°C.
What are the APU start-attempt limitations?
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No more than three starts or start attempts in one hour, with at least two minutes between attempts.
What is the general maximum altitude for APU bleed-air extraction?
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23,000 ft, subject to the detailed pack, occupant, and temperature limitations.
What is the maximum altitude with A220 slats or flaps extended?
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20,000 ft.
What are the limitations for manually extended A220 flight spoilers?
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At least 300 ft AGL and at least VREF + 10 KIAS; MAX spoilers are for emergencies only.
What happens to fuel remaining in a tank when its fuel quantity indicator reads zero?
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It is considered unusable.
What is the minimum A220 fuel quantity for go-around?
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442 kg (975 lb) per wing under the specified level-aircraft and maximum 10-degree nose-up climb-attitude conditions.
What are the A220 bulk-fuel temperature limits relevant to takeoff?
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Maximum bulk fuel temperature is +52.5°C and takeoff is prohibited below -37°C.
What must be the status of manual fuel transfer and gravity crossflow for takeoff?
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They must be OFF.
Can A220 FPLN UPLINK be used in flight?
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No. Its use in flight is prohibited and any REQUEST PENDING must be cleared before takeoff.
When must NAV mode be selected for a localizer approach?
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Before the Final Approach Fix.
What speed mode must be used when flying VAPP in final landing configuration?
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MAN SPD.
Is QFE altimeter setting permitted on the A220?
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No. QFE operation is prohibited.
What is the minimum engine oil temperature for takeoff?
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49°C.
How long may maximum takeoff thrust normally be used?
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5 minutes, extendable to 10 minutes for an OEI contingency.
What cooling period is required after three engine start attempts or four minutes of continuous cranking?
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30 minutes.
How long must an engine normally operate at or near idle before shutdown?
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At least three cumulative minutes; near idle is up to 40% N1.
What is required in Engine Takeoff Wind Zone 3?
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Takeoff is prohibited.
What applies if either wing tank contains more than 2,830 kg of fuel?
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Unattended APU operation is prohibited and the left engine must be started first.
When is manual fuel transfer required on the ground if a wing tank exceeds 2,830 kg?
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When the center tank contains less than 10,670 kg; transfer fuel from the affected wing tank to the center tank until below 2,830 kg.
What do the symbols 🔹 and 🔹🔹 mean in A220 normal procedures?
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🔹 means first flight of the day; 🔹🔹 means once a day.
Why must the first four Power-on steps be performed from memory?
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Because the ECL is not available before the batteries are turned on.
What are the first four A220 Power-on memory actions?
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PARK BRAKE ON; BATT 1 AUTO; BATT 2 AUTO; ECL on DU2.
How long should the crew wait between aircraft power-off and power-on?
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15 seconds.
How long should Ground Service Mode be OFF before aircraft power-up?
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At least one minute.
How long must the APU switch be held in START during the Power-on procedure?
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At least 3 seconds, then allow it to return to RUN.
What must occur before electrical-system configuration changes are made during APU start?
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APU GEN must show online on the ELEC synoptic.
What must be done before another APU start attempt after an APU SHUTDOWN advisory during start?
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Set the APU switch to OFF.
When must the A220 Cabin Inspection be completed?
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Before the first flight of the day or after any crew change.
How long must the cabin ceiling and sidewall lights remain BRIGHT before the first flight?
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At least 30 minutes.
What indications are expected during a lavatory smoke-detector self-test?
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The detector sounds, the status indicator turns red, and the ceiling advisory panel flashes orange.
What is the required condition of thrust-reverser and fan-cowl latches during the walkaround?
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Latched and flush.
What is the required thrust-reverser condition during the external walkaround?
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Stowed.
What is the expected position of the MFS and ground spoilers during the walkaround?
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Flush with the upper wing surface.
Can clear ice form on an A220 wing when ambient temperature is above 0°C?
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Yes, if cold-soaked fuel at 0°C or below chills the wing skin and moisture freezes on it.
When must pilots specifically ensure that the upper wing is free of clear ice?
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When fuel temperature is 0°C or below and high humidity or visible moisture is present.
What must not be done during the APU start cycle?
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Do not make electrical-system configuration changes until APU GEN is online.
What must be done if APU SHUTDOWN appears during the APU start cycle?
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Set the APU switch OFF before attempting another start.
How is preliminary takeoff performance verified on the A220?
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PF and PM compute it independently and compare the results.
How many landing-gear pins must be accounted for onboard during Preflight?
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Three.
Which side should XFR be selected to during Preflight?
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The PF side.
What transponder and TCAS configuration is checked during Preflight?
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XPDR 1 selected, TCAS AUTO, and Flight ID inserted.
What altitude should be set in the FCP altitude window during Preflight?
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The initial expected clearance altitude.
When is the A220 ice-detector test performed?
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On the first flight of the day.
What confirms successful completion of the ice-detector test?
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An ICE caution is displayed and the test subsequently shows DONE.
Who must check EICAS and INFO messages during Preflight?
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Both pilots.
What are the normal Preflight selections for AUTOBRAKE and NOSE STEER?
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AUTOBRAKE RTO and NOSE STEER OFF.
What ADS and IRS configuration must be confirmed during Preflight?
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On-side ADS and IRS, with no white or amber ADS/IRS messages on the FMA.
What confirms the rudder trim is correctly centered after its Preflight test?
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The rudder-trim triangle outline is green.
How is the A220 sidestick Preflight test performed?
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Both pilots test their sidesticks in turn and verify correct indication and normal return to neutral.
What oxygen-mask setting is selected after the Preflight test?
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100%.
When are TOGA, NAV and VNAV configured for departure?
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After the Preflight flow and FMS preparation are complete.
If HDG is expected after departure, which lateral mode must be used for takeoff?
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TO mode; HDG is selected later at a safe altitude.
When should the takeoff briefing normally be completed?
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Before calling for the Before Start checklist.
How long should the crew wait after changing from external power to APU power before disconnecting external power?
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5 seconds.
What is the recommended external-air start pressure at sea level?
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38 psi.
What is the maximum permitted external-air start pressure?
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45 psi.
What hydraulic-pump configuration is recommended for engine start with external electrical power in use?
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HYD 3A and 3B OFF for start, then AUTO after one or both engines are started.
Is single-engine taxi recommended on slippery or contaminated surfaces?
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No.
What hydraulic selection is recommended before flap movement or flight-control checks with only the right engine operating? and what with only the left engine operating?
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only right engine - PTU ON. only left engine - HYD 2B ON.
What must be true before moving the flight controls on the ground?
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All hydraulic systems must be powered.
How often must the wing anti-ice test be completed?
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Once per day.
What minimum N1 is required for the wing anti-ice test at or below 8,000 ft?
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30% with dual-engine bleed; 50% with single-engine bleed.
What indicates successful completion of the wing anti-ice test?
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PASS.
What nose-steering selection is made after the Before Taxi flight-control check?
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NOSE STEER ON.
What must the stabilizer trim match before takeoff?
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The STAB TRIM value on the FMS PERF DEP page, within the green range.
What is the required rudder-trim condition before takeoff?
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Centered and green.
What performance data must be used when the brakes are not held until takeoff thrust is set?
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Rolling-takeoff performance.
Can a derated or FLEX takeoff be initiated without operative and armed autothrottle?
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No.
What is the initial engine thrust setting during a normal takeoff?
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Approximately 55% N1, stabilized on both engines.
By what speed must the thrust levers reach the takeoff setting?
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Before 60 kt ground speed.
What is the required action for an autothrottle disconnect below 60 KIAS?
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Abort the takeoff.
After an autothrottle disconnect above 60 KIAS during a derated takeoff, when may the takeoff continue?
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When both engines match the target N1.
After an autothrottle disconnect above 60 KIAS during TO or TO FLEX, what is required to continue?
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Set the thrust levers to MAX.
What does the PM call at 80 KIAS when takeoff thrust is correctly set?
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EIGHTY KNOTS, THRUST SET.
What is the normal A220 takeoff rotation rate?
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3 to 5 degrees per second toward the PTM.
When is POSITIVE CLIMB called?
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When vertical speed is positive and radio altitude is increasing.
At what minimum height is the stabilized-climb mode-change gate?
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Not below 400 ft AGL.
What is the key thrust-setting difference during a High Wind Takeoff?
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After stabilizing near 55% N1, advance to takeoff thrust at 20 kt ground speed.
What is the PM callout at 20 kt during a High Wind Takeoff?
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TWENTY KNOTS.
What are the maximum recommended takeoff crosswinds for RCC 6 to RCC 1?
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32, 32, 27, 20, 10, and 10 kt.
Which engine may be started first using an external air source?
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Either engine.
What are the LOT A220 maximum takeoff weight?
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MTOW 63,049 kg.
What are the LOT A220 maximum landing weight?
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MLW 57,379 kg.
What is the maximum number of cabin occupants on the LOT A220?
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154: up to 149 passengers and 5 cabin crew.
Which center-of-gravity envelope applies to the LOT A220?
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The standard full CG envelope.
What diversion configuration is selected for the LOT A220?
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60-minute diversion.
What is the recommended initial climb speed with all engines operating?
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V2 + 10 KIAS.
What is the recommended initial climb speed with one engine inoperative?
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V2.
What are the maximum bank angles in takeoff configuration with all engines operating and with one engine inoperative?
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30° AEO; 15° OEI.
When does automatic wing anti-ice operation satisfy the daily wing anti-ice check objective?
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After more than 3 consecutive minutes of automatic operation in flight without a failure.
What are the conditions for the in-flight wing anti-ice check during climb?
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Below 31,000 ft, or below 19,000 ft with dual bleed and single pack, TAT 15°C or below, with CLB/CLB-1/CLB-2 maintained.
How long is wing anti-ice selected ON for the in-flight check during climb?
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3 minutes.
What are the conditions for the wing anti-ice check during descent?
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Below 31,000 ft, TAT 15°C or below, with thrust maintained at IDLE.
How long is the low-altitude wing anti-ice check below 19,000 ft before approach?
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2 minutes.
What is Green Dot speed used for in holding?
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It is the recommended holding speed because it results in minimum fuel flow.
What is the maximum bank angle at Green Dot with all engines operating?
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30° up to 31,500 ft; 15° above 31,500 ft.
What is the maximum bank angle at Green Dot with one engine inoperative?
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25°.
When destination QNH is displayed on the FMS PERF ARR page, what must be confirmed?
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ALT is below 10,000 ft.
What difference between the FMS and charted final vertical path is acceptable?
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0.1°.
What is the normally acceptable difference between the FMS and charted final lateral track?
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1°.
What lateral-track difference is acceptable for a conventional radio NAVAID approach?
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3°.
Who checks EICAS messages during the Descent and Approach procedure?
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Both pilots.
How is MDA treated during a CDFA?
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As a Decision Altitude.
What must be done at MDA during a CDFA if the required visual reference is not available?
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Execute a go-around.
Does an FMS-based non-ILS approach display an ASA indication?
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No.
By what height must the aircraft be stabilized after a GS/VGP intercept from above?
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Before 1,000 ft AAE.
What modes should be armed before attempting a GS/VGP intercept from above?
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APPR with GS or VGP armed.
What FCP altitude is used during a GS/VGP intercept-from-above recovery?
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Not below 1,000 ft AAE.
What descent-rate range may be used if required to capture GS/VGP from above?
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Approximately 1,000 to 1,500 ft/min descent.
What three conditions are recommended before selecting APPR for an ILS?
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Cleared for the approach, within 25 NM of the runway threshold, and LOC deviation one dot or less.
By when should VNAV be deselected during an approach without vertical guidance?
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At the latest 1 NM before the FAF in the detailed procedure.
When is the final FPA normally set when the FAF follows a level-off?
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0.3 NM before the FAF.
What lateral mode transition occurs after localizer capture on a LOC-only approach?
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Select NAV to transition from APPR LOC1/2 to LOC1/2.
What is the FDP?
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The point at or before the FAF from which a constant descent is defined.

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